100 ചോദ്യങ്ങള്‍ ഉത്തരങ്ങള്‍

QUESTIONS

1. Only after the payment of dividend to all other shares, the _________ shares will get bonus.
2. __________ represents the unsecured promissory notes issued by the firms to raise short-term funds.
3. __________ is considered while determining the book value of the equity shares.
4. Capital redemption reserve can be used for issuing _________ shares.
5. An invitation to the public for subscription of company’s shares and debentures is called ____.
6. Authorised share capital is mentioned in the ________ of the company.
7. Capital reserves are created from ___________.
8. ___________ means an amount which is written off or retained by the way of providing for any unknown future liability of which amount cannot be determined accurately.
9. In ________ statement, items of revenue nature is included and items of capital nature are excluded.
10. Receipts and payment account will not reveal ______.
11. ___________ serves the purpose of trial balance under double entry system.
12. The objective of _______ ratio is to measure the ability of the firm to meet its short-term liability.
13. _____ ratio measures the efficiency with the resources of the firm are employed.
14. Under capitalisation method, ______ is the amount of capital saved.
15. In consignment, the document used to give information of the goods send is called ________.
16. In consignment sales, ___________ is not transferred.
17. Consignment stock is shown as _____ in balance sheet.
18. Amount given in lumpsum and the repayment in instalment is called ________.
19. __________ statement contains details regarding the loans to be disbursed.
20. Profit on revaluation account is shared in ___ ratio.
21. Company is a person created by ___________.
22. Fictitious asset also include ___________ expenditure.
23. _______ refers to any amount which is definitely irrecoverable.
24. _________ is an error within the same class of account but affecting different persons.
25. AS 15 deals with _________.
26. While amalgamation or division of society, the member is given ________ period for the withdrawal of shares and deposit.
27. The subsidiary institution constituted under section 14AA of KCS Act shall not include a ___________.
28. If any question arises as to the classification of the society, it shall be referred to ____.
29. _________ society may admit any other society as nominal or associate member.
30. Rule associated with form no 31 is ______.
31. Rule 18 of KCS Act is _______.
32. For the purpose of calculating the term of committee, five years from __________ will be taken to be the term of committee.
33. Kerala Revenue Recovery Act came into force in the year _______.
34. Incidental charges register should be kept in the society for ______ period.
35. Statements and returns to be submitted by the society is dealt in rule ___.
36. Number of members in representative general body shall not exceed ____ if the number of members of society is between 2500 and 10000.
37. In case of primary society, the resolution for the conduct of election shall be sent to SCEC through _________.
38. The rank of officers to be posted for election duty may be fixed by ____ in consultation with government.
39. Term and conditions of SCEC is mentioned in rule ___ of KCS Rules.
40. A special general body shall be called by the requisition from ___ of the total number of members.
41. It shall be the duty of the ___________ of every society to maintain the records and seal of society under his safe custody.
42. ______ means a special charge on movable or immovable property, in favour of society dealing with credit by a mere declaration in writing by the borrower, which will have all the characteristics of a valid mortgage.
43. Section 40 of KCS Act is ___________.
44. A declaration to be made under section 36 shall be in form no ___.
45. Failure in the remittance of co-operative education fund attract a penal interest at the rate ____ on the default amount.
46. _________ shall have the power to fix the maximum lending limit of a credit society by general or special order in writing.
47. Rule 59 of KCS Rule is __________.
48. The immovable property acquired by society shall be disposed of by society within _____ period from the acquisition.
49. Within _______ period of the date of receipt of audit report, the DCA shall issue audit certificate.
50. No auditor shall accept the audit of more than ____ societies for audit in a financial year.
51. Japanese co-operative consumer union established in the year _____.
52. Province in England considered to be pioneer of co-operative whole sale stores is _____.
53. Co-operative marketing association of Canada is called ____.
54. Paul Lumbar is a well-known co-operator in ________.
55. Rural credit societies in Italy was the contribution of _______.
56. In the year _____, the retail societies of Denmark had organized their wholesale society named FDB.
57. Kolkhoz in Russia was the familiar name of _________.
58. Food fares are connected with the co-operative movement of ________.
59. The co-operative legislation in Japan is __________.
60. _______ was the first form of people commune in China.
61. Hantex is a/an _________ society.
62. Pledge Loan System is associated with _______.
63. Production bonus is set apart from _________.
64. Crop loan is a_____ loan.
65. _______ is at the middle level of coir co-operatives in Kerala.
66. The first co-operative college is at __________.
67. Headquarters of ULCCS is at __________.
68. Kerala State Handloom Development Corporations is generally known as ____.
69. Kerala Institute of Rural Development is located at ___________.
70. In the year ____, Amul started in Kaira district of Gujarath.
71. Who was the chairman of the ‘committee on land development bank’ in the year 1973?
72. CRAFICARD committee submitted their report in the year _____.
73. Expert committee to examine three tier co-operative credit structure in the year ____.
74. HQ of KRIBHCO is at ______.
75. Who quoted “co-operation is an educational programme employing economic activities”.
76. Expand CDR.
77. NPCI started business in the year _____.
78. Alpha numeric code that identifies a bank branch participating in the interbank electronic fund transfer is _____.
79. Rule of Claytons case relates to _____ of payments.
80. Regulation of NBFC was strengthened by RBI in the year _____.
81. The system in a bank for immediate payment up to a certain limit is called _____.
82. Expand NACH.
83. ______ is the minimum lending rate.
84. Section 26 of BR Act defines ________.
85. Audit is defined in section ____ of BR Act.
86. Disposal of non-banking assets is defined in section ___ of BR Act.
87. Section 17 of NI Act defines ____________.
88. Holders right to duplicate of lost bill is defined in section ____ of NI act.
89. Chapter 8 of NI Act defines _________.
90. According to DICGC Act, ________ means the aggregate of the unpaid balances due to a depositor in respect of all his accounts.
91. RBI Act section _____ defines banks power to collect credit information.
92. Section 24 of RBI act defines __________.
93. VOSTRO account with debit balance is a/an _______.
94. _______ note means a currency note become dirty due to usage.
95. Technology Development and Modernisation Fund has setup by _____.
96. Mahila Bank merged with ____ bank in 2017.
97. RRB is a _____ level bank.
98. _______ indicates the rate of interest at which bank lends to favourable customers.
99. Section 172 of Indian Contract Act is ______.
100. Limit fixed for the accepting deposits in payments bank is ____ per customer.

ANSWERS