100 ചോദ്യങ്ങളും ഉത്തരങ്ങളും

Rajesh. p.v.karippal (principal co operativr traning college)

OMR QUESTIONS

 

1.The term ‘ Gilt-edged’ means

A. Secured B. Unsecured
C. of the best quality D. Out from the risk

 

2.Expand IPO

A. Initial primary offer B. Initial public offering
C. Initial public offset D. Internal public offering

 

3.BHMI app was developed by

A. RBI B. NPCI
C. Stock exchange D. Government of India

 

4.Government securities where date of maturity is specified are known as

A. Dated government securities B. Secured government securities
C. Matured government securities D. Specified government securities

 

  1. Liquidity adjustment facility is introduced by
A. Government of India B. State Government
C. RBI D. SBI

                                  

  1. Year of Depositories Act
A. 1999 B. 1996
C. 1992 D. 2012

 

7.Commercial paper refers to

A. Short term unsecured promissory note B. Short term secured promissory note
C. Long term Unsecured promissory note D. Medium term unsecured promissory note

 

8.Certificate of Deposit (CD) was introduced in India in

A. 1898 B. 1979
C. 1989 D. 1999

 

9.Minimum lock-in-period for certificate of deposit (CD) is

A. 30 days B. 7 days
C. 15 month D. 20 days

 

10.When a money is borrowed or lent for more than a day and up to 14 days is called

A. Call money B. Overnight money
C. Notice money D. Earn money

 

11.Which committee recommended that call money market in India should be made purely an interbank market?

A. Royal commission B. Royal commission
C. Verma committee D. Narasimham committee

 

12.How many stock exchanges are there in India?

A. 7 B. 20
C. 23 D. 28

 

13.National Stock Exchange (NSE) was set up at the behest of the Government of India based on the recommendation laid out by the

A. Pherwani committee B. Index advisory committee
C. Naresh Chandra committee D. None of these

 

14.Management of SEBI includes — member from RBI.

A. 3 B. 1
C. 0 D. 5

 

15.How many parties are there in a transaction of forfaiting?

A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5

 

16.Act year of FERA

A. 1999 B. 2000
C. 1973 C. 1963

 

17.The difference between the rate at which the interest is paid on deposit and is charged on loans called

A. interest B. investment
C. Disbursement D. Spread

 

18.Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act

A. Mortgage B. Hypothecation
C. Assignment D. Banker’s lien

 

19.In case of mortgage, relationship between borrower and bank is

A. Mortgagee – mortgagor B. Mortgagor – Principal
C. Mortgagor – mortgagee D. Principal – mortgagor

 

  1. Liquidity Adjustment facility is recommended by
A. Narasimham committee on banking reforms B. Dantwala committee
C. Committee for financial sector reforms D. BASEL committee

 

21.Equitable mortgage is also known as

A. Mortgage by deposit of equality B. Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
C. Mortgage by ownership of depositor D. Mortgage by loan

 

22.A banker can open a SB account on behalf of a minor, which can be operated upon

by the

A. Natural guardian of the minor B. Natural guardian appointed by the court
C. A person authorized by the minor D. Both A and B

 

23.Electronic Clearance Service (debit) Scheme is introduced by

A. NPCI B. RBI
C. Government of India D. UPI

 

24.Rural infrastructure development fund was setup with NABARD in

A. 1992-1993 B. 1993-1994
C. 1994-1995 D. 1995-1996

 

25.Headquarter of Prathama Bank which is the first RRB

A. Uttar Pradesh B. Mumbai
C. Newdelhi D. Andrapradesh

 

26.ICA created International Co operative Entrepreneurship Think Tank(ICETT) in

A. 2012 B. 2018
C. 2019 C. 2020

 

27.First International Co operative Congress held in

A. September 1895 B. October 1895
C. August 1895 D. November 1895

 

28.Which is the National Federation of Agricultural Co operative Association in Japan?

A. KOH B. ZENFYOREN
C. NISSEIKYO D. ZEN NOH

 

29.Chief executive of NCDC

A. Secretary B. Managing director
C. General manager D. Deputy general manager

 

  1. Regional directorate of NCDC in Kerala is
A. Kochi B. Thrissur
C. Thiruvananthapuram D. Kozhikode

 

31.NAFED is registered under

A. Multi unit co operative societies Act B. Multi state co operative societies Act
C. Kerala Co operative societies Act D. None of these

 

  1. How many Regional Institute of Co operative Management are there under NCCT?
A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 1

 

  1. President of NCCT
A. Amith Shah B. B.L Varma
C. Bijender Singh D. Pankaj Kumar

 

34.First president of NCUI

A. H.L Shaji B. Amith Shah
C. Lallubhai S Gupta D. Dileep Sanghani

 

35.Madhu Mantra is the brand name of honey developed by

A. NCDC B. NABARD
C. SC/ST FED D. NAFED

 

36.Ayushman Sahakar relates to

A. SCU B. Kerala bank
C. NCDC D. NCUI

 

 

 

37.Direct to kitchen is a slogan of —?

A. Kerafed B. Consumerfed
C. Coirfed D. Capex

 

38.Co operative law committee appointed in 1956 is headed by

A. H. Calvert B. S.T. Raja
C. S. D Misra D. R.N. Mirdha

 

39.Co operative way is the civilized way of working is quoted by

A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Indira Gandhi
C. William King D. Edgard Milhand

 

40.Headquarters of TRIFED

A. Mumbai B. Noida
C. Newdelhi D. Gujarat

 

41.Banking commission setup under the chairmanship of

A. H Calvert B. Saraiyya
C. Maclagan D. Gorwala

 

42.Rehabilitation weaker central bank from heavy overdue was a recommendation of

A. AIRCRC B. AIRCSC
C. Maclagan committee D. Planning committee

 

43.The organizer of Purssian central bank in Germany

A. Ben Hardy B. Hass
C. Raiffeisen           D. Schulz

 

44.Communal bank started by

A. Don Cerutty B. Luzzatti
C. H C Soune D. Robert Owen

 

45.Luzzati insisted only —– liability

A. unlimited            B. limited
C. mixed       D. open liability

 

 

 

46.Thisted workers store in Denmark started by

A. Stilling Anderson B. L C Nelson
C. NFS Gruntwing D. H C Soune

 

47.Find odd one, and are Swedish Insurance societies

A. Folksam   B. Folket
C. Samarbete          D. ALKA

 

48.Founder of urban co-operative banking system

A. Schulz B. Raiffeisen 
C. William King  D. Robert Owen

 

49.Luzzati followed the lines of ——— Bank

A. Raiffeisen           B. Robert Owen
C. Schulze    D. William King

 

50.FUSION is a —— Society in Sweden

A. Marketing          B. Insurance 
C. Dairy         D. Wholesale

 

  1. As per Co operative societies Act 1904, registration deals with
A. S 1 to S 2 B. S 3 to S 4
C. S 5 to S 6 D. S 6 to S 7

 

52.As per Co operative society Act 1904, the Registrar shall audit the accounts of each society at least —- in every year.

A. Thrice B. Twice
C. once D. none of these

 

53.Rate of contribution to price fluctuation depend upon the rates

A. fixed by RCS B. Fixed in byelaw
C. Fixed by general body D. Both A and C

 

54.Rule 196 of KCS Act deals with

A. Framing of Rules by the societies B. Framing of Rules by the Government
C. Maintenance of service register D. Prohibition of personal contract

 

55.Employees of Co operative society shall be entitled to receive Medical allowance at the rate prescribed by

A. Registrar B. Government
C. Byelaw D. General body

 

56.Section 2 (ab) of KCS Act

A. Auditing of accounts of co operative societies B. Anand pattern milk co operative society
C. Consortium lending scheme D. Recruitment committee

 

57.Partnership of co operative society with the permission

A. Government B. RBI
C. General body D. Registrar

 

58.Interim vacancy of member can be filled up by

A. Registrar B. General body
C. Managing committee D. Election

 

59.Result of election shall be recorded in the minutes book of the union by

A. Secretary B. Returning officer
C. Electoral officer D. Managing director

 

60.Who shall fix the scale of pay of employee of the SCU ?

A. Registrar B. Government
C. Both (A) & (B) D. Central Registrar

 

61.Audit report shall be in the form specified by the

A. Chief executive B. Government
C. RCS D. DCA

 

62.No prosecution shall be instituted under sub-section 2,3,4,5,6 and 7 of section 94 without the previous sanction of the

A. Government B. RCS
C. Chief executive of  the society D. General body

 

63.Every society shall send to the Registrar of any change in address of society within —-days of the change

A. 15 B. 30
C. 20 D. 7

 

64.Limitation Act was passed in the year

A. 1960 B. 1961
C. 1963 D. 1965

 

65.Unregistered appeal and applications in form number —– of Appendix II

A. 21 B. 25
C. 24 D. 26

 

66.Every appeal memorandum to the tribunal bearing court fee stamp of

A. Rs.1.00 B. Rs.1.50
C. Rs.10` D. Rs.5

 

67.Other staff in Tribunal as may be fixed by the —— from time to time

A. RCS B. Government
C. Secretary of Tribunal D. Co-operation minister

 

68.Any decision or order to which the application relates to under S. 87 was communicated to the applicant within ——- from the date on which the proceedings

A. 1 month B. 1 year
C. 3 month D. 15 days

 

69.Which rule deals with the secretary shall have the custody of record of the tribunal and shall exercise such power as are assigned to him?

A. Rule 95 B. Rule 97
C. Rule 96 D. Rule 98

 

  1. Position of valuation officer of PCARDB
A. Assistant Registrar B. Additional Registrar
C. Joint Registrar D. Deputy Registrar

 

71.In case of affiliation of co operative society quorum for last general body

A. 2/3 B. 1/3
C. ¾ D. no quorum

 

72.Application to Co operative society deals with

A. Rule 8 A B. Rule 16 E
C. Rule 148 D. Rule 155

 

73.Year of Employees Provident Fund Act

A. 1955 B. 1954
C. 1953 D. 1952

 

74.Fee for deciding monetary dispute shall be calculated

A. 50 paise for every claim of 100 rupees B. 25 paise for every claim of 100 rupees
C. 50 paise for every claim of 10 rupees D. 25 paise for every claim of 10 rupees

 

75.The ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is

A. turnover ratios B. profitability ratios
C. long term solvency ratio D. none of the above

 

76.The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is

A. turnover ratios B. profitability ratios
C. short term solvency ratio D. none of the above

 

77.Which of the following assets have definite physical share or identity and existence?

A. fictitious assets B. current assets
C. tangible assets D. intangible assets

 

78.In profit and loss account, if debit is more than the credit, the difference is

A. net profit B. net loss
C. gross profit D. none of the these

 

79.Investment is a

A.  personal account B. real account
C. nominal account D. representative personal account

 

  1. Interest earned is a
A. personal account B. real account
C. nominal account D. Intangible real account

 

  1. While putting the value or price of an entity in financial records the lowest price is recorded not the current price or current market value. This is known as
A. Business Entity Concept B. Conservatism
C. Expenditure Concept D. Money Measurement Concept

 

 

82.Cash flow analysis is based on the

A. capital B. fixed assets
C. cash concept of funds D. working capital

 

83.In funds flow statement, outflow of funds on account of operations is

A. application of fund B. source of cash
C. application of cash D. source of fund

 

84.Secret reserve is also known as

A. Hidden reserve B. inner reserve
C. internal reserve D. All of these

 

85.General reserve is created by

A. Debiting Profit and loss account B. Debiting Profit and loss appropriation account
C. Crediting Profit and loss account D. Crediting Profit and loss appropriation account

 

86.General reserve is also called

A. Revenue reserve B. Free reserve
C. Normal reserve D. both A and B

 

87.Missapropriation of goods is otherwise called

A. Embezzlement of goods B. Fraud through goods
C. Pilferage of goods D. Both A and B

 

88.Goods purchased on credit from Mr. X on 31-05-2019 for 20,000 not recorded on purchase book is

A. Error of complete omission B. Error of principle
C. Partial omission D. Error of commission

 

89.Detection and prevention of fraud is the —- of audit

A. Primary objective B. Main objective
C. Secondary objective D. Both A and B

 

90.Audit is done with the help of

A. Voucher B. Documents
C. Explanation received from the authorities D. All of the above

 

 

91.First column of Receipt and disbursement statement

A. Opening balance B. Capital
C. Receipt D. Disbursement

 

92.Provision for depreciation

A. is shown on the liability side of balance

 sheet and deducted from asset value

B. is shown on the liability side of balance

 sheet and not deducted from asset value

C. is shown on the asset side of balance

sheet and deducted from asset value

D. is shown on the asset side of balance

 sheet and not deducted from asset value

 

93.Which of the following is correct?

  1. Liability = Receipt – Disbursement
  2. Liability = Disbursement – Asset
  3. Liability = Opening balance + Receipt – Disbursement
  4. Liability = Asset – Capital
A. A and D B. A,C and D
C. B and D D. Only D

 

94.Peculiar feature of Co operative audit.

A. Statutory audit B. compulsory audit
C. Test audit D. interim audit

 

95.Legal fees paid in connection with factory extension.

A. Deferred revenue expenditure B. Revenue expenditure
C. Income D. Capital expenditure

 

96.Fire insurance premium

A. Capital expenditure B. Revenue expenditure
C. Deferred revenue expenditure D. Either A or B

 

97.Which of the following expenditures/receipts are treated as revenue?

A. Earned from trade receivables during

the year Rs.15,000

B. Rs.15,000 spent on demolishing a building

for the construction of a bigger building at

the same site

C. Rs.15,000 spent as travel expenses of

directors on foreign trip for purchase of

capital asset

D. Rs.15,000 received as insurance claim on

 account of damage to machinery caused by fire

 

98.Capital expenditure will be reflected in

A. Trading account B. Profit and loss account
C. Profit and loss appropriation account D. Balance sheet

 

99.Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity of a cinema hall is called

A. Personal expenditure B. Nominal expenditure
C. Capital expenditure D. Revenue expenditure

 

100.The objectives of capital expenditure budget is

A. Estimate expenditures B. Determine capital projects
C. Overlook expected rate of return on each project D. Prevent cost over run on projects

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ANSWERS

 

1. C 33. A
2. B 34. C
3. B 35. D
4. A 36. C
5. C 37. A
6. B 38. B
7. A 39. A
8. C 40. C
9. B 41. B
10. C 42. A
11. D 43. B
12. C 44. A
13. A 45. B
14. B 46. D
15. B 47. D
16. C 48. A
17. D 49. C
18. A 50. C
19. C 51. C
20. A 52. C
21. B 53. B
22. D 54. A
23. B 55. B
24. D 56. A
25. A 57. D
26. B 58. D
27. C 59. B
28. D 60. C
29. B 61. D
30. C 62. B
31. B 63. B
32. C 64. C
65. D 83. A
66. B 84. D
67. B 85. B
68. C 86. D
69. C 87. C
70. A 88. A
71. D 89. C
72. C 90. D
73. D 91. C
74. C 92. B
75. B 93. B
76. A 94. C
77. C 95. D
78. B 96. B
79. B 97. A
80. C 98. D
81. B 99. C
82. C 100. C

                                           

                                                                      ( മൂന്നാംവഴി സഹകരണമാസിക ആഗസ്റ്റ് ലക്കം -2023)

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