100 ചോദ്യങ്ങള്‍ ഉത്തരങ്ങള്‍

QUESTION PAPER

1. Procedure for appointment of nominees deals with Rule ____ of KCS Act.

(A)Rule39	(B)Rule 37
(C)Rule 35	(D)Rule 47

 

2. Appointment of government nominees to societies other than apex societies are done by:

(A)Chief Minister	(B)Chief Secretary
(C)Registrar	(D)General Body

 

3. Presiding officer is appointed by:

(A)SCEC	(B)Government
(C)Registrar	(D)None ofthese

 

4. As per Rule 38, the presiding officer shall convene the committee within ____ of election to the committee.

(A)30 Days	(B)15 Days
(C)14 Days	(D)7 days

 

5. Any member of a committee, whether elected or nominated may tender his resignation to:

(A)The Chief Executive	(B)MC
(C)The President	(D)Registrar

 

6. The president on receipt of resignation, shall within _____ from the date of receipt thereof place it before the committee for consideration.

(A)15 Days	(B)10 Days
(C)7 Days	(D)2 Days

 

7. If the term of office of the board is less than ______, the casual vacancy of an elected member of committee shall be filled up by a nomination.

(A)Half of original term	(B)Quarter of original term
(C)1/5th of original term	(D)None of these

 

8. The letter of resignation by president shall place before _____ for consideration.

(A)Registrar	(B)General Body
(C)SCEC	(D)Committee

 

9. Remuneration payable to the new committee, administrator or administrators appointed by the registrar deals with ______ of KCS Act.

(A)Rule 42	(B)Rule 40
(C)Section 41	(D)Section 40

 

 

 

 

10. New committee, administrator or administrators shall be eligible for remuneration at rate fixed by:

(A)Themselves	(B)Managing committee
(C)General Body	(D)Registrar

 

11. The expenses for the appointment of new committee, administrator or administrators shall be borne by:

(A)Society	(B)Government
(C)SCEC	(D)None of these

 

12. Interim committee consisting of not more than ____ members.

(A)3	(B)5
(C)8	(D)9

 

13. Election of president, vice president etc. deals with _____ of KCS Act.

(A)Rule 43	(B)Rule 42
(C)Section 43	(D)Section 43A

 

14. If a casual vacancy of office bearer arises, the committee shall request election commission within ______ of arising such vacancies.

(A)60 Days	(B)30 Days
(C)7 Days	(D)15 Days

 

15. The election commission shall appoint the presiding officer within ____ from the date of receipt of request to conduct election to the casual vacancy of office bearer.

(A)60 Days	(B)30 Days
(C)7 Days	(D)15 Days

 

16. As per Rule 43 of KCS Act, the members shall make ______ mark on the ballot paper against the name or names of the candidate.

(A)’O’	(B)’X’
(C)Signature	(D)Tick

 

17. As per Rule 43 of KCS Act, in case of equal division of votes, the result shall be decided by lot to be drawn by:

(A)President	(B)Chief Electoral Officer
(C)Secretary	(D)Presiding Officer

 

 

 

 

18. The proceeding of the meeting with the results of election shall be recorded in the minutes’ book of the society and attested by:

(A)Chief Electoral Officer	(B)President
(C)Presiding Officer	(D)None of these

 

19. The ballot paper and other records of the election shall be preserved for _____ from the date of election.

(A)3 months	(B)1 year
(C)3 years	(D)6 months

 

20. Who shall be responsible person to keep the ballot paper after election?

(A)Electoral officer	(B)Secretary
(C)SCEC	(D)President

 

21. Removal of president or vice president by non-confidence motion deals with _____ of KCS Act.

(A)Rule 44B	(B)Rule 43A
(C)Section 44	(D)Section 43A

 

22. According to rules of KCS Act, who shall remove the president, vice president of the committee from his office.

(A)Committee	(B)General Body
(C)Registrar	(D)None of these

 

23. A notice of intention to move a president by a non-confidence motion signed by not less than ______ of the total strength of the committee.

(A)One-fifth	(B)One-fourth
(C)One-tenth	(D)One-third

 

24. According to Rule 43A, any officer duly authorised by the registrar shall arrange for the consideration of motion in a meeting of committee which shall not be later than ______ from the date on which the copy of motion delivered to registrar.

(A)30 Days	(B)45 Days
(C)15 Days	(D)7 Days

 

25. _______ is the initial record of transactions and events.

(A)Ledger	(B)Accounting
(C)Journal	(D)None of these

 

 

 

26. _____ account is classified into purchase, sales, purchase returns and sales returns.

(A)Goods	(B)Trading
(C)P/L	(D)None of these

 

27. _______ cost represent acquisition price of goods and assets.

(A)Market Cost	(B)Risk Cost
(C)Purchase Cost	(D)Historical Cost

 

28. Total of the purchase book is posted to:

(A)Credit of purchase account	(B)Debit of purchase account
(C)Credit of trading account	(D)Debit of P/L account

 

29. The value or amount which can be realized on sale of an asset is:

(A)Representative value	(B)Objective value
(C)Realisable value	(D)None of these

 

30. _____ value of an asset is the discounted value of net cash inflows that will be generated during the life of that asset.

(A)Present value	(B)Depreciation value
(C)Realisable value	(D)None of these

 

31. ________ is the increment of wealth arising from use of capital wealth and from rendering services.

(A)Capital	(B)Goodwill
(C)Income	(D)None of these

 

32. Balance sheet approach is also known as:

(A)Transactions Approach	(B)Capital Maintenance Approach
(C)Activities Approach	(D)Revenue Approach

 

33. _______ concept is concerned for ascertaining profit or loss of the business.

(A)Realisation Concept	(B)Periodicity Concept
(C)Conservative Concept	(D)Matching Concept

 

34. _______ concept is concerned with continuity of accounting method and policy.

(A)Periodicity	(B)Cost
(C)Consistency	(D)Disclosure

 

 

 

35. In a business enterprise, ownership interest is known as:

(A)Equity	(B)Capital
(C)Revenue	(D)None of these

 

36. _______ are issued by Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.

(A)Accounting Policies	(B)Accounting Standards
(C)Accounting Disclosures	(D)None of these

 

37. Expand ASB which constituted to frame accounting standards.

(A)Accounting Standard Board	(B)American Standard Board
(C)Association of Standards Board	(D)None of these

 

38. The paper which support transactions are known as:

(A)Ledgers	(B)Journals
(C)Footnotes	(D)Vouchers

 

39. _________ of a person means that he is unable to pay his liabilities.

(A)Insolvency	(B)Liquidity
(C)Viability	(D)None of these

 

40. The task of preparing ledger accounts on the basis of journal is called:

(A)Marshalling	(B)Journalising
(C)Posting	(D)None of these

 

41. Credit balance of personal account indicates:

(A)Amount receivable	(B)Amount Payable
(C)Revenue	(D)None of these

 

42. The words ‘To balance b/f’ or ‘By balance b/d’ are recorded in the particular column of an account at the time of posting is:

(A)A closing entry	(B)An opening entry
(C)A balancing entry	(D)None of these

 

43. Acquisition of a right to carry on business is a:

(A)Revenue expenditure	(B)Deferred revenue expenditure
(C)Capital expenditure	(D)None of these

 

44. Heavy losses like damage of property due to flood is a:

(A)Deferred revenue expenditure	(B)Revenue Expenditure
(C)Capital Expenditure	(D)None of these

45. If any income derived not by running the business, it is:

(A)Trading Income	(B)Revenue Income
(C)Transaction Income	(D)Capital Income

 

46. Revenue income is shown in ______ of final accounts.

(A)Trading Account	(B)Balance Sheet
(C)P/L Account	(D)None of these

 

47. Sale of fixed asset is treated as:

(A)Revenue receipt	(B)Capital expenditure
(C)Revenue expenditure	(D)Capital receipt

 

48. Sale proceeds of goods are:

(A)Capital Receipt	(B)Revenue Receipt
(C)Revenue Expenditure	(D)None of these

 

49. Surplus of sales proceeds after deducting cost of goods sold will be:

(A)Revenue	(B)Profit
(C)Expense	(D)None of these

 

50. Dividend received or interest received is:

(A)Expense	(B)Liability
(C)Revenue	(D)None of these

 

51. Co-operation is a happy golden mean between:

(A)Socialism and Communism	(B)Capitalism and Socialism
(C)Communism and Capitalism	(D)None of these

 

52. Latin word of Principium means:

(A)Principle	(B)Production
(C)Basis	(D)Process

 

53. Which stage of principles deals with Karve’s principles:

(A)IInd Stage	(B)Ist Stage
(C)IVth Stage	(D)IIIrd Stage

 

54. Which principle is known as principle of growth:

(A)Co-operative education	(B)Voluntary association
(C)Co-operation among co-operatives	(D)Member economic participation

 

55. Year of reformed principles by ICA:

(A)1937	(B)1964
(C)1967	(D)1995

 

56. In which co-operative principles stage, a draft submitted including “The statement of Co-operative identity”

(A)First Stage	(B)Fourth Stage
(C)Second Stage	(D)Third Stage

 

57. A pamphlet “The co-operator” published by Dr.William King from the year:

(A)1828	(B)1832
(C)1825	(D)1838

 

58. According to section 2(62) of companies act 2013, _____ means a company which have only one person as member.

(A)Joint stock company	(B)One person company
(C)Public limited company	(D)Private limited company

 

59. “We have to learn to strike a mean between individual freedom and social restraint”, stated by:

(A)Indira Gandhi	(B)Nehru
(C)Malcolm Darling	(D)Gandhiji

 

60. Communism formulated by Karl Marx explained in the book:

(A)Wealth of Nations	(B)British Co-operation
(C)Communist Manifesto	(D)Conflict and Co-operation.

 

61. Communist manifesto is published in the year:

(A)1846	(B)1828
(C)1836	(D)1848

 

62. According to whom, co-operative movement is a product of economic and social conditions created by the industrial revolution:

(A)C R Fay	(B)Horace Plunkett
(C)Raiffeison	(D)Malcolm Darling

 

63. Friendly societies act year:

(A)1776	(B)1763
(C)1782	(D)1793

 

64. The charitable organizations of philanthropists who contributed money to purchase food and other consumable items in bulk and supply them to poor at cost price is:

(A)Artels	(B)Friendly Societies
(C)Pools	(D)Exchange Note

 

65. According to _______, labour note contained the number of hours’ work done by a labourer to produce each commodity and is issued to the labourers instead of money.

(A)William King	(B)Rochdale Pioneers
(C)Robert Owen	(D)None of these

 

66. Robert Owen was a/an ___________.

(A)Christian Socialist	(B)Utopian Socialist
(C)Marxist	(D)None of these

 

67. The SCWS setup a factory to produce food items, clothing, furniture etc. at:

(A)Glasgow	(B)Hjedding
(C)Milan	(D)Middelfort

 

68. Co-operative movement in Denmark was introduced by:

(A)Grudwing	(B)Eldin
(C)Ulkrik	(D)H C Sonne

 

69. Founder of diary co-operatives in Denmark is:

(A)H C Sonne	(B)Ulkrik
(C)Stilling Anderson	(D)Hamilton

 

70. Lurbrand introduced in the year:

(A)1899	(B)1901
(C)1908	(D)1904

 

71. Today ‘LURBRAND’ is known by:

(A)LURBUY	(B)LURPRO
(C)LURSEC	(D)LURPAK

 

72. The first egg export association on co-operative basis organized in the year:

(A)1985	(B)1886
(C)1895	(D)1896

 

 

 

73. Central organization of Japan:

(A)JA	(B)KOH
(C)UNICOOP	(D)ZEN NOH

 

74. Japanese credit co-operative law year:

(A)1899	(B)1901
(C)1900	(D)1902

 

75. _________ movement started a new price policy in fixing the price of the produce known by active price policy.

(A)Swedish Consumer	(B)England Consumer
(C)French Consumer	(D)None of these

 

76. First ATM was installed in:

(A)Japan	(B)America
(C)Germany	(D)London

 

77. The ATM’s which are self-service automated teller machine that use some measures to identify customers through camera and scanners and allow them to proceed with transactions are called:

(A)WLATM	(B)Green ATM
(C)Biometric ATM	(D)Pink ATM

 

78. In which year, RBI declared to allow non-banking entities to setup and operate their own ATM’s called White Label ATM (WLATM).

(A)2012	(B)2015
(C)2010	(D)2011

 

79. The ATM which does not have the logo of bank is called:

(A)WLATM	(B)Brown Label ATM
(C)Yellow ATM	(D)None of these

 

80. A white label ATM can withdraw a maximum of ___________ per transaction.

(A)Rs. 5,000/-	(B)Rs. 10,000/-
(C)Rs. 25,000/-	(D)Rs. 50,000/-

 

81. ATM’s which are connected to banks database throughout and provide real time transactions online are:

(A)Offline ATM	(B)Stand Alone ATM
(C)Online ATM	(D)None of these

 

82. The ATM’s which are designed to be in an interior location such as lobby, mall or retail store is:

(A)Yellow ATM	(B)Stand-alone ATM
(C)Green ATM	(D)None of these

 

83. The ATM’s which are outsourced by a particular bank and which have logo of the bank are called:

(A)Black Label ATM	(B)Grey Label ATM
(C)Pink Label ATM	(D)Brown Label ATM

 

84. Expand CDM in ATM’s:

(A)Cash Deposit Machine	(B)Cash Deducting Machine
(C)Cash Dissipation Machine	(D)None of these

 

85. ATM’s that are not connected to the database of bank and have predetermined withdrawal limit fixed are:

(A)Stand-alone ATM	(B)Offline ATM
(C)Matrix ATM	(D)None of these

 

86. Brown Label ATM does not have involvement of:

(A)Government	(B)Bank
(C)Non-Banking Entity	(D)RBI

 

87. Expand POS

(A)Person on Service	(B)Point of Service
(C)Person on Sale	(D)Point of Sale

 

88. ‘O’ in CORE Banking is:

(A)Online	(B)Offline
(C)Operated	(D)Overseas

 

89. RTGS system is operated by:

(A)Government	(B)RBI
(C)Finance Ministry	(D)IBA

 

90. In RTGS, transactions get settled in a:

(A)One-to-Many Basis	(B)Many-to-One Basis
(C)One-to-One Basis	(D)Token Basis

 

 

91. The maximum limit of amount transacted through NEFT:

(A)Rs. 50,000/-	(B)Rs. 1,00,000/-
(C)Rs. 2,00,000/-	(D)No Limit

 

92. Venture capital is also known as:

(A)Risk Capital	(B)Patient Risk Capital
(C)Monetary Capital	(D)Both A and B

 

93. The capital refers to high risk investment in an early stage or start-up company by a high net worth individual or an institutional investor:

(A)Angel Funding	(B)Venture Capital
(C)Overdue Capital	(D)None of these

 

94. Smart card based ‘e-Purse’ card system is popular in:

(A)Arab Countries	(B)Latin American Countries
(C)European Countries	(D)None of these

 

95. A type of credit card which have lots of perks and benefits, higher annual fee:

(A)Premium Credit Card	(B)Wholesale Credit Card
(C)Retail Credit Card	(D)None of these

 

96. Expand SIM:

(A)Subscriber Incremental Machines	(B)Subscriber Identity Modules
(C)Subscriber Identification Machines	(D)None of these

 

97. Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by RBI in:

(A)1972 April	(B)1969 April
(C)1972 December	(D)1969 December

 

98. Lead bank was to act as the consortium leader of banks and financial institutions in:

(A)A Taluk	(B)A Village
(C)A District	(D)None of these

 

99. Expand SAA, which is an improved version of Lead Bank Scheme:

(A)Service Accessed Approach	(B)Service Assisted Action
(C)Service Area Approach	(D)None of these

 

100. A credit card that can be used only at retail shops associated with:

(A)Retail Credit Card	(B)Wholesale Credit card
(C)Premium Credit Card	(D)None of these

ANSWER KEY

1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. A
25. C
26. A
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. B
33. D
34. C
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. D
48. B
49. A
50. C
51. B
52. C
53. D
54. C
55. A
56. B
57. A
58. B
59. D
60. C
61. D
62. A
63. D
64. B
65. C
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. C
70. B
71. D
72. C
73. B
74. C
75. A
76. D
77. C
78. D
79. A
80. B
81. C
82. B
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. D
87. D
88. A
89. B
90. C
91. D
92. D
93. B
94. C
95. A
96. B
97. D
98. C
99. C
100. A

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